So after reading these articles it makes me question global warming even more.
If mans great industrialisation(global warming), which began in the early 1900's is causing the winds around the Antarctic to contract closer and lessen the warming effect in that particular area while increasing its effects in others this is of great concern. But as the article points out these wind changes started to occur somewhere around 13-1400 ad, so doesn't that indicate the change had started before we became industrialised?
Every article I read on both sides of the argument seam to contradict themselves